Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 18:01
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Which city should one visit between Nice and Cannes? Why?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Why do people stop working towards achieving their dreams?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.